| The digestive tract is also called the ______ ______. | Alimentary canal |
| How long is the digestive tract? | 9 m (30 ft) |
| What does the digestive tract mainly consist of? | Mouth
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Anus |
| Which organs aid in the digestive process, but are not considered part of the digestive tract? | Accessory organs;
Liver, Gallbladder, Pancreas
(and teeth, tongue, salivary glands, appendix) |
| Tiny elevations on the tongue called ______ contain the taste buds. | Papillae |
| Enzymes in the mouth begin the chemical breakdown of ________. | Carbohydrates |
| What are the 3 pairs of salivary glands? | Parotid
Submandibular
Sublingual |
| How man mL of saliva are secreted every day? | 1000 to 15000 mL |
| What is the major salivary enzyme? | Salivary amylase (ptyalin) |
| Which enzyme destroys bacteria in the mouth? | Lysozyme |
| The esophagus is a muscular, collapsible tube that is _____ long. | 25 cm (10 in) |
| How long does it take for peristalsis to move bolus through the pharynx, to the esophagus, and to the stomach? | 5 to 6 seconds |
| Where is the stomach located? | Upper left abdominal quadrant |
| The stomach can hold a volume of _____. | 1 to 1.5 L |
| Where is the stomach's entrance? | The cardiac sphincter |
| Where does the digestion of protein begin? | In the stomach |
| What softens the connective tissues of meats, kills bacteria, and activates pepsin? | Hydrochloric acid |
| What is released to protect the stomach lining? | Mucin |
| The stomach breaks food down into a substance called _____. | Chyme |
| What are the 3 major sections of the small intestine? | Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum |
| What percentage of digestion takes place in the small intestine? | 90% |
| What is essential in breaking down proteins into their amino acid components, in reducing fats to glycerol and fatty acids, and converting starch to simple sugars? | Pancreatic juices |
| What finger-like projections in the small intestine aid in digestion by absorbing products into the blood stream? | Villi |
| The ileocecal valve releases contents of digestion into the ________. | Large intestine |
| What are the 4 major functions of the large intestine? | 1. Completion of absorption of water
2. Manufacture of vitamins
3. Formation of feces
4. Expulsion of feces |
| What is the function of the veriform appendix? | Stores nonpathologic bacteria until they are needed for digestion |
| What is the wormlike, tubular structure that hands from the cecum? | Veriform appendix |
| Which vitamins are produced in the large intestine? | Vitamin K
B-Complex Vitamins |
| What is the largest glandular organ? | The Liver |
| How much blood is delivered to the liver every minute? | 1500 mL |
| What is bile necessary for? | The emulsification of fats |
| The liver releases 500 mL to 1000 mL of bile per day, which travels to the _______. | Gallbladder |
| What produces the main source of body heat at rest? | The liver |
| What is the pear-shaped organ measuring 7-10cm? | Gallbladder |
| What is the primary function of the gallbladder? | Store and eject bile into the duodenum for digestion of fats |
| Which enzymes do pancreatic juices contain? | Protease
Lipase
Amylase |
| What are the 3 major components of chyme which are digested by the enzymes in pancreatic juice? | Proteins
Fats
Carbohydrates |
| What part of the brain signals the individual to eat, and to stop eating? | Hypothalamus |
| What is achlorhydria? | Absence of hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice |
| What are the causes of dental decay? | -Dental plaque
-The strength of acids and inability of saliva to neutralize them
-Length of time acids are in contact with teeth
-Susceptibility to teeth decay |
| Thrush appears commonly in which indivdual? | Newborn infant who becomes infected while passing through the birth canal |
| How does candidiasis appear? | Pearly, bluish-white "milk curd" lesions |
| Tumors of the submaxillary gland have a high incidence of ________. | Malignancy |
| What are the two common types of cancers of the lip? | Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma |
| What is the clinical manifestation of carcinoma of the mouth? | Leukoplakia |
| When is a biopsy recommended of a leukoplakia? | If the lesion persists more than 2 weeks |
| Most oral cancers occur in which individual? | Men over 60 |
| What is the purpose of radiation therapy? | To shrink the tumor |
| What is GERD? | A backward flow of stomach acid up into the esophagus |
| When is reflux most common? | Postprandial state
(after meals) |
| What are the 2 major symptoms of GERD? | 1. Heartburn (pyrosis)
2. Regurgitation |
| What can develop if GERD is left untreated? | Barrett's esophagus
(precancerous changes in the esophageal lining) |
| How should the head of the bed be elevated for a patient with GERD? | 6-8 inches using wooden block or foam wedges |
| Early esophageal cancer typically has what kind of symptoms? | NO symptoms |
| What is the most common symptom of esophageal carcinoma? | Progressive dysphagia over a 6 month period |
| Define anastomosis | Surgical joining of two ducts, blood vessels, or bowel segments to allow flow from one to the other. |
| What is achalasia or cardiospasm? | The inability of a muscle to relax, particularly the cardiac sphincter |
| In extreme cases of achalasia, how much can the dilated portion of the esophagus hold? | A liter or more |
| What is the primary symptom of achalasia? | Dysphagia |
| What is the preferred surgical approach to achalasia? | Cardiomyotomy |
| What is the preferred surgical approach to achalasia? | Cardiomyotomy |
| What is gastritis? | The inflammation of the lining of the stomach |
| Where do peptic ulcers most commonly occur? | Stomach (gastric ulcer
Duodenum (duodenal ulcer) |
| What does the term peptic ulcer refer to? | Acid in the digestive tract that eroding the mucosal lining of the stomach, esophagus, or duodenum. |
| What are the most common causes of peptic ulcers? | H. Pylori bacteria
NSAIDs
Smoking/chewing tobacco
Alcohol |
| Upset stomach and vague GI complaints are referred to as _______. | Dyspepsia |
| List the purpose of nasogastric intubation: | Decompression
Feeding
Compression
Lavage |
| What is the most common neoplasm or malignant growth in the stomach? | Adenocarcinoma |
| What is a definite risk factor for gastric cancer? | Infection with H. pylori, especially at an early age |
| Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is elevated in advanced _______________. | Gastric cancer |
| What is dumping syndrome? | Rapid gastric emptying of undigested food to the small intestine;
causes distention of the duodenum or jejunum |
| Dumping syndrome is the direct result of what? | The surgical removal of a large portion of the stomach and pyloric sphincter |
| Patients with dumping syndrome should eat a diet low in _______. | Carbohydrates |
| How should a patient with dumping syndrome position themselves after meals? | Recline for one hour |
| How often should patients with a total gastrectomy have their B12 levels checked? | Every 1-2 years |
| What kind of therapy is of little value in treating stomach cancer? | Radiation therapy |
| The partial or complete separation of wound edges is called: | Dehiscence |
| What is evisceration? | Protrusion of viscera through the wound |
| E. Coli O157:H7 contaminates large amounts of meat, especially ________. | Ground beef |
| Which strain of E. Coli is not part of the normal flora of the human intestine? | E. Coli O157:H7 |
| Which medications prevent the intestines from getting rid of E. Coli? | Antidiarrheals |
| C. difficile is known as what kind of infection? | Facility acquired |
| How long can C. difficile spores survive on inanimate objects? | 70 days |
| C. difficile is not destroyed by which method of hand washing? | Antiseptic hand rub |
| Define tenesmus : | Ineffective and painful straining during defecation |
| What happens to the inner lining of the small intestine when a person with Celiac disease consumes gluten? | The lining is damaged, and the villi is destroyed |
| In relation to celiac disease, once gluten is removed from the diet how long will it take for damage to the intestine to be resolved? | 3-6 months |
| What factor is not considered a cause of IBS, but can exacerbate symptoms? | Stress |
| What is NOT usually present in a patient with IBS? | Weight loss and nocturnal symptoms |
| In diagnosing IBS, what does Rome III criteria include? | Abdominal discomfort at least 3 days/month, in the last 3 months
At least two of the following
1. Relief with defecation
2. Onset associated with change in stool frequency
3. Onset associated with stool appearance |
| Ulcerative colitis is slightly more common in ____.
Crohn's disease is slightly more common in ____. | Ulcerative colitis- Females
Crohn's disease- Males |
| People with ulcerative colitis commonly have a family member with ________. | Crohn's disease |
| Ulcerative colitis usually begins in the ______ and moves towards the _______. | Rectum, moves towards the cecum |
| Characteristic diarrhea of ulcerative colitis contains: | Pus and blood |
| Why are antidiarrheal agents preferred for those with ulcerative colitis over anti-cholinergic agents? | Anti-cholinergic drugs can mask obstruction/ contribute to toxic colonic dilation |
| What is a common cause of peristomal skin infection? | Candida albican s |
| Where can Crohn's disease occur? | Anywhere in the GI tract; mouth to anus |
| What kind of pain is characteristic of Crohn's disease? | Right lower quadrant |
| What will the stool of a person with Crohn's disease contain? | Mucous and pus; no blood |
| What is steatorrhea? | Excess fat in the feces |
